# Why does this integral rearrangement hold?

A remedy to among my technique troubles entails this:

$\int^\infty_0 \{\int^x_0 dy\}f(x)dx = \int^\infty_0 \{\int^\infty_y f(x) dx\}dy $

Where f() is a PDF function of a continual arbitrary variable (if that makes any kind of distinction).

Why does this job? And also what should I recognize in order to have the ability to use this sort of action to troubles in the future?

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user1066113 2022-07-25 20:46:18

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