My solution is *no * because, $\mathbb{Q}^o = \emptyset$ therefore $\overline{(\mathbb{Q}^o)} = \emptyset$ yet $\overline{\mathbb{Q}} = \mathbb{R}$ therefore $\big(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}\,\big)^o = \mathbb{R}$.

Is my instance deal with?

2022-07-25 20:46:51
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